1) Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? A) oak tree - producer B) bacteria - decomposer C) squirrel - consumer D) mushroom - detritus E) dead leaf - detritus 2) The function of chlorophyll in plants is to A) produce oxygen. B) absorb carbon dioxide. C) absorb water. D) absorb light. E) produce carbon dioxide. 3) The gradual movement of the segments of the Earth’s crust against each other does NOT cause A) faults. B) earthquakes. C) volcanic eruptions. D) tides. E) growth of oceanic ridges. 4) Which of the following best describes the J curve? A) rapid growth followed by population equilibrium. B) slow growth and a gradual rise in population until the carrying capacity is reached. C) rapid growth followed with a balance with the carrying capacity. D) rapid growth, often exceeding the carrying capacity. E) slow growth followed by population equilibrium. 5) The portion of a population that survives to become a part of the breeding population is referred to as the A) recruitment level. B) reproduction strategy. C) critical number. D) population equilibrium. E) carrying capacity. 6)One species diverging into two more species is called A) specification. B) speciation. C) sporadic. D) specialization. E) speculation. 7) Replacement migration is: A) immigration that equals the death rate of older age classes. B) immigration that offsets population decline. C) immigration that is equal to emigration. D) an increase in total fertility rate that equals the immigration rate. E) immigration that is equal to the total fertility rate. 8) Which of the following is a food safety related issue concerning genetically modified organisms? A) Bt is a known toxin. B) Roundup is a weed killer. C) some people may be allergic to foreign proteins introduced into foods. D) toxins carried by pollen from transgenic crops may kill beneficial in- sects. E) golden rice is still undergoing testing. 9) Differences in yields per acre in different regions of the world are mostly a consequence of differences in: A) soils, availability of water, and sunlight. B) use of high yield varieties. C) pest losses. D) temperature. E) labor 10) Which of the following does NOT illustrate aesthetic use of natural biota? A) trophy hunting B) collecting shells C) ecotourism D) commercial fishing E) bird watching 11) Which of the following is a goal of CITES, the Convention on Trade in En- dangered Species? A) to prohibit use of endangered species habitat. B) to regulate and set limits on trade in endangered species and their parts. C) to develop recovery programs for endangered species in the U.S. D) to prohibit trade in endangered species and their parts. E) to ban the sale of any endangered species or their parts. 12) An essential part of any strategy to bring back species that are endangered is: A) a recovery plan. B) purchase of their habitat. C) identification of invasive species. D) reintroduction into suitable habitat. E) captive breeding in zoos. 13) Which of the following statements concerning the Biodiversity Treaty is cor- rect? A) countries are granted protection of their genetic resources but are not obligated to protect the environment more than they are now. B) financial support for protection in developing countries must come from the countries themselves. C) developed countries stand to benefit little from the treaty. D) other environmental problems such as deforestation are ignored. E) in return for access to a species for a commercial purpose (e.g. to make a medicine). developing countries can expect compensation or access to specific technologies. 14) Which of the following is true of the economic value of forests products in developing countries? A) since forests are regrowing in developed countries, their value globally has declined. B) they are used primarily used for local consumptive use. C) their main value is the extractive reserves of nuts, latex, and fruits. D) they are a major source of income and international trade. E) certification programs prohibit their sale to developed countries. 15) Japan and Norway would like the IWC to set a quota for hunting ________ whales. A) fin. B) all species of. C) blue. D) humpback. E) minke. 16) According to the Maximum Sustained Yield model, a population shows the most rapid growth when it is: A) twice the carrying capacity. B) about half the carrying capacity. C) not harvested at all. D) above the carrying capacity. E) at the carrying capacity. 17) The Magnuson Act of 1976 extended United States jurisdiction to ________ miles offshore. A) 100 B) 500 C) 1000 D) 200 E) 30 18) Which of the following is true concerning the energy in coal used to pro- duce electricity? A) it cannot be used for any other purpose. B) most of it is converted to electricity. C) little energy is lost as heat in the production of electricity. D) most of it is dissipated in the conversion to electricity. E) it is the only fuel that can be used to produce electricity. 19) Hubbert’s Peak is: A) a region with high potential for wind energy. B) a rich coal deposit in West Virginia. C) an oil region in Alaska. D) a prediction of when U.S. oil production would reach a maximum. E) an estimate of global proven reserves. 20) If half of a quantity of radioactive material decays in 10 years, in another 10 years A) all of it will have decayed. B) half of the remaining half will decay. C) three quarters of the remaining half will decay. D) none of the remaining half will decay. E) There is no way of predicting how much will decay. 21) A nuclear chain reaction refers to A) the release of energy in a nuclear explosion. B) the fusion of two smaller atoms to form a larger one. C) the splitting of one atom causing the splitting of another. D) the splitting of one atom causing the fusion of others. E) the release of neutrons in atomic decay. 22) Which of the following is true concerning low doses of radiation? A) health effects of low doses radiation have never been observed. B) they can cause changes in cells that do not show up until many years later. C) they cannot be measured and thus are considered safe. D) the routine emissions from power plants are still higher than back ground radiation. E) they are generally considered safe because they are below a threshold level. 23) Light radiation strikes a sandwich of two layers of silicon and dislodges electrons from one layer which are then picked up by the other layer caus- ing production of an electric current. This best describes A) nuclear fusion. B) active solar heating systems. C) passive solar systems. D) flat-plate solar collectors. E) photovoltaic cells. 24) Home production of electricity from solar energy requires the use of:. A) flat plate collectors. B) photovoltaic cells. C) increased insulation. D) passive or active solar systems. E) solar troughs. 25) Biogas is derived from A) the anaerobic digestion of sewage. B) the fermentation of sugars. C) capturing the steam produced by turbogenerators. D) the burning of wood. E) photosynthetic plants. 26) Fuel cells produce energy from hydrogen by: A) combustion of the hydrogen. B) producing an electric current. C) photosynthesis. D) electrolysis. E) using solar energy to produce hydrogen. 27) An allergic disease of the respiratory system is: A) AIDS. B) pneumonia. C) malaria. D) tuberculosis. E) asthma. 28) Establishing a chemical as a cause of cancer is difficult because A) a long time may elapse between exposure and development of the cancer. B) people do not want to accept that cancer is caused by environmental hazards. C) the development of cancer is poorly understood. D) some cancers are known to be hereditary. E) it is difficult to measure concentrations of chemicals. 29)Which of the following characterizes the “precautionary principle” as it applies to risk from exposure to consumer products? A) products should be proven to be safe before they are put on the market. B) the burden of proof should be on those that question the safety of a product. C) absolute safety can never be proven. D) the burden of proof should be on the consumer. E) pre-testing is unnecessary because if it is harmful we will be able to tell soon after it enters the market. 30)) In the course of using synthetic chemical pesticides, such as DDT, it was observed that certain species of insects which had not previously caused significant harm became serious pests. This phenomenon is known as A) a synergistic effect. B) resistance. C) a secondary pest outbreak. D) resurgence. E) a mutation. 31) Crop rotation is an effective form of cultural control of agricultural pests because: A) it allows farmers to use different pesticides. B) it increases the number of natural predators. C) it is allowed by law. D) it prevents the build up of pest populations from year to year. E) it allows farmers to try out varieties that are more resistant to insects. 32) Genetic improvement of crops increases pest resistance by: A) making the plant grow faster. B) making the pest weaker. C) stimulating the production of genetic mutations. D) increasing naturally occurring chemical or physical defenses of the plant. E) using chemicals or cultural practices to interrupt the life cycle of the pest. 33) Dissolved and colloidal organic matter in sewage can be removed by A) denitrification. B) sand filtration. C) slow flow over biologically active stones. D) settling. E) chlorination. 34) Most collection and disposal of municipal solid waste is the responsibility of the: A) federal government. B) local government. C) individual homeowner. D) state. E) EPA. 35) A waste management strategy that is immune from escalating transporta- tion costs and tipping fees is: A) recycling of electronic wastes. B) source reduction. C) municipal composting of leaves. D) combustion. E) landfills. 36) The contamination at Love Canal was: A) seepage from a deep well injection site. B) residential housing built over a closed and capped hazardous waste site. C) an isolated case of improper waste disposal. D) an abandoned hazardous waste site. E) widespread contamination from flooding of a waste impoundment. 37) In phytoremediation, once plants have absorbed the wastes from the contaminated soil: A) they are safe to eat. B) the soils are too toxic to support further plant growth. C) the soils are deficient in nutrients and will not support further plant growth. D) can be used as feed for livestock. E) they are harvested and treated as toxic waste. 38)Which of the following is absorbed by ozone in the stratosphere? A) UV-B and UV-A. B) UV-B. C) UV-A but not UV-B. D) visible light and ultraviolet light. E) all radiation. 39) Which of the following is NOT a significant source of indoor air pollution? A) cooking. B) use of hobby glues and paints. C) house plants. D) smoking. E) use of cleaning agents. 40) Which of the following describes changes in the 5 criteria air pollution in the U.S. since the enactment of the Clean Air Act? A) emissions have decreased but ambient air quality remains the same. B) they have decreased substantially. C) they are about the same. D) they have increased because of economic growth and more automo- biles. E) they have become steadily worse. 41) The brownish color of air in some polluted urban areas is due to: A) nitrogen dioxides. B) soot. C) sulfur oxides. D) carbon dioxide. E) ozone. 42) According to the ecological economist’s view, economic production: A) does not require natural resources. B) can supply needed services without affecting the environment. C) lies outside of the environment. D) competes with ecosystem services. E) involves the transformation of natural resources into manufactured goods. 43) A major limitation in the use of GDP as a measure of a nation’s wealth is that it does not take into account: A) value of agricultural products. B) income from abroad. C) the value of natural resources. D) per capita gross domestic product. E) the depreciation of natural capital. 44) Local governments raise money for the services that they provide mainly through A) state lotteries. B) gasoline taxes. C) property taxes. D) direct billing to those affected. E) income taxes. 45) Suburban communities have generally thrived economically while cities have declined economically because: A) higher population density in the suburbs means more tax dollars. B) there are fewer people in the suburbs. C) suburban residents have higher paying jobs. D) suburbs received more funds from the Highway Trust Fund. E) services provided by the local governments are financed mainly through property taxes which have declined in cities and increased in suburbs.